Jesus wasn't mum on homosexuality
THE EDITOR, Sir:
It is a pity that persons make confident statements about the Bible before making in-depth enquiries. This is the mistake committed by Henry Morgan in his letter to the editor published Wednesday, January 18, titled 'Jesus mum on gays, so why aren't we?'
Quite clearly, Henry Morgan forgets that the New Testament was not originally written in English, but in Greek. In the original Greek version of the New Testament, Jesus was far from being silent on homosexuality.
Henry Morgan's mistake arises from the fact that he does not know that the word translated 'fornication' throughout the English version is the Greek word 'porneia'. This word includes every sexual act outside the marriage union between a male and a female. It, therefore, includes all the sexual sins listed in Leviticus 18 - incest (verses 6-19), adultery (v 20), homosexuality (v 22) and beastiality (v 23).
This can be seen in Matthew 19:9, where the word 'fornication' obviously includes adultery. This means that the words of Jesus in Mark 7:21-22, where He lists the sins which "defile a man", include homosexuality, as fornication is the third sin listed.
So the explicit condemnation of homosexuality by St Paul in Romans 1:26-27 and 1 Corinthians 6:9 is exactly in keeping with the teaching of Christ. Quite apart from this explicit condemnation by both Jesus and St Paul, it was Jesus who instituted monogamous marriage between one man and one woman in Matthew 19:4-6. For Jesus, therefore, any sexual act outside this union is sin. We all have to "rightly divide [or understand] the word of truth".
This does not mean that homosexuals are eternally condemned. They can be, and should be, redeemed and transformed by Christ (1 Cor 6:11). Homosexuality is not genetic.
EARL THAMES (Rev)